#28256
Jimmy-T
Keymaster


    @pielover
    said:
    If the answer to this question too is yes, than, in my opinion, the occupation of the premises is consistent with that of a dwelling.  

    I’m sorry – what’s your point? The case you highlighted was one that established that a house used exclusively for holiday rentals was not technically a dwelling.

    OK.  But the point of all this is that we know planning laws and zoning are being breached but the only people who can do anything about it – the councils – are doing nothing and the only people who want to do something about it – strata owners – are being prevented from doing so.

    That’s it. Whatever legal definitions you come up with, our hands are tied while councils’ hand have their big fat bums on theirs.

    The opinions offered in these Forum posts and replies are not intended to be taken as legal advice. Readers with serious issues should consult experienced strata lawyers.