#17891
Jimmy-T
Keymaster
Chat-starter

    Yes, I am disputing this with them because they are saying that since the concept of implied permission hasn’t been tested in court, then it is not legal. My argument is that implied consent in by-laws is fundamental to the running of strata and the fact that something hasn’t been tested in court has no bearing on whether or not it’s legal UNTIL it’s tested in court. 

    The opinions offered in these Forum posts and replies are not intended to be taken as legal advice. Readers with serious issues should consult experienced strata lawyers.