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  • #9079

    A reader recommended that I write to you about an urgent matter regarding our 2 bedroom unit in Barton, ACT.  We bought the unit in 2004.  About 3 years ago my wife and I converted our unit into a Self Serviced Apartment by spending about $28,000 in furnishings (furniture, TV, homewares, curtins, drapes etc) to bring it up to a high standard.  Recently we signed a 12 secure tenancy agreement with our Agent who subsequently leases the unit to corporate people at higher rates.  Unbeknown to us the Body Corporate Committee passed a motion last September, 2012 banning the leasing of units in the complex as Self Serviced Apartments.  We were unaware of this motion as we did not attend this meeting.  The question which seems to have stumped everyone including the Strata Manager is whether this motion applies retrospectively to our situation.  Is there a legal basis for applying this motion to our case, having spent so much money furnishing our apartment much prior to this motion being passed? 

    We can understand why the Body Corporate want to keep the place peaceful but we always had fairly quiet, orderly tenants.

    Our Agent has given us to 22 October to resolve this issue otherwise the long term tenancy agreement will be withdrawn.

    Could you please help us by advising on how we stand legally.

Viewing 5 replies - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
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  • #19737
    Millie
    Flatchatter

      I suggest that the basic criteria you need to adhered to has nothing to do with by-laws etc.  You need to go to your local council, who would have issued the Development Approval on your strata complex, and ask them to confirm whether or not the use to which you are putting your unit to is compliant with their DA on the property.  It’s is as simple as that.  

      Don’t entertain ‘negotiating’ with your fellow Lot Owners a way around/through/over this issue.  Don’t put everyone through all this stress and expose everyone to possibly endless frustration and angst!

      Council has the final word on whether or not what you are doing is compliant with the ‘intended use’ of the premises.

      #19742
      scotlandx
      Strataguru

        Just a few things, although obviously Council approval is relevant.

        – you say that the Committee passed a motion banning leasing of the units.  PeterC may be able to enlighten us as to how it works in Canberra, but I would assume that anything like that would have to go to a meeting of all the owners to have any effect?

        Did you get notice of the Committee meeting where they passed this motion?  For something like that there should have been a notice with the intended motion on the agenda.

        – re retrospectivity, as a general rule it applies from the time the rule applies, so any action that breaches that rule from that time on is a breach of the rule.

        – the amount of money you may have spent furnishing the apartment isn’t really relevant.

         

        #19751
        Sir Humphrey
        Strataguru

          I got this question via another route. Initially I replied:

           The first thing that occurs to me is to ask what exactly was passed at
          the AGM:
           Was it just an ordinary motion, from the floor, with no notice given to
          members?
           Was it notified to all owners as a motion on the agenda (IE that you had
          a chance to see and respond to at the meeting)?
           Was it decided as a ‘rule’ (aka by-law or article)? 
           If it was a new rule, was the motion passed as a ‘special resolution’ (a
          higher standard is required to adopt a new rule-it has to have a majority
          in favour and fewer than one third opposed of those present and entitled
          to vote, in person and by proxy.
           If it was a new rule, was the rule registered with the land titles
          office?
           Was the meeting a ‘reduced quorum’ meeting (fewer than 50%
          represented)?
           If it was a reduced quorum, were the decisions notified with the
          required form within 7 days?

           In any case, this might be something to sort out via an ACAT dispute but
          get the facts first.
           The ACAT can give orders to overturn a decision or to modify a decision
          or to substitutes its own. 
           It might, for example, decide that it was reasonable for the owners
          corporation to decide to not allow further tenancy arrangements such as
          yours but to add a ‘grandfathering’ clause that allows your unit to
          continue to operate as it has until such time as you are no longer an
          owner. 

           The only other thing that occurs to me, about which I am unsure, is
          whether the short-term leasing would have be illegal all along. I assume
          that the unit is zoned as residential and that probably has a definition
          that includes the length of time people spend in a unit. An issue that
          might have concerned the OC is whether it would be required to comply with
          the sorts of things that hotels have to have but don’t apply in standard
          residential areas.

          Then the original poster sent a copy of the minutes of the 2007 general meeting at which a rule (aka Bylaw/Article) banned this sort of short term letting in the complex. The original poster had been an owner since 2004. The special resolution to adopt the rule was notified to owners and then passed at the meeting. It all looked above board. Allowance was made to phase out the then-existing short term letting. Consequently I don’t think the poster has any recourse since they started the short-term letting well after the new rule came into effect. I then wrote:

          Hi,
          That all looks pretty water-tight to me. The motion was notified. The notice and minutes acknowledge 
          the difficulty for pre-existing short-leased apartments and a transition period is implied by the 
          comment under the resolution. As an owner from 2004 you would have received the notice of the 2007 
          meeting and the minutes of the meeting. Whether the correct form for a reduced quorum was used or 
          not, I doubt being pedantic about that would help. All the information required on the form is 
          contained on the first page of the minutes. 
          One could check whether the amendments to the Articles/Rules were registered. They should be to 
          have effect. As it happens, I know (one of the EC members) slightly and I doubt he would have failed to 
          ensure the Articles were registered. Even if they were not registered, they could be registered now and 
          they would become valid. If you had bought the unit more recently than 2007 and inspected the 
          registered articles at the time you might have some argument for fairness but even so you would not 
          be entitled to greater consideration than was given to those who were short-leasing in 2007 and that 
          was only a chance to phase out the practice with the help of the EC. As it is, you owned the unit in 
          2007 and would have had notice of the amendments to the Articles then. 
          Finally, as the newspaper article suggests, short-leasing is probably contrary to the lease conditions of 
          the overall property and you would also have a catch-all rule requiring that members of the owners 
          corporation comply with any legislation in force in the ACT. That would require the owners corporation 
          to comply with the lease conditions of the property (IE residential purposes, not short leases). Even 
          without the specific short-leasing rule, you would probably be caught out by the general rule on 
          compliance with legislation and the OC would be obliged to enforce it via the EC. 

          I think it is all pretty clear now, 
          Sorry!
          Peter.

          #19753
          adriantazza
          Flatchatter

            I believe that one aspect of passing a by-law is that it requires the consent of all affected owners – might be different in the ACT, but if consent was not provided then does that provide an avenue for the now negatively-affected owner for potential recourse? 

            #19758
            Sir Humphrey
            Strataguru

              I believe that one aspect of passing a by-law is that it requires the consent of all affected owners – might be different in the ACT, but if consent was not provided then does that provide an avenue for the now negatively-affected owner for potential recourse? 

              Two things.

              1) I don’t think we have anything about consent by affected owners in our Act.*

              2) It has become apparent that the rule (bylaw) was in place well before this owner decided to let out his unit in this way though it seems he may have been advised it was OK by a strata manager who didn’t check the OC’s rules.

               

              *If a rule were passed that was unfair to a particular owner or a minority of owners, the solution would be to have the ACAT (our Tribunal) give orders to amend or rescind the resolution that adopted the rule.

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