Sure an owner has a right to rent to let his lot. But equally surely a majority of owners of the common property have a right to say who can use their common property and how it can be used? Or are “rights” just a one way street?
Sure an owner has a right to rent to let his lot. But equally surely a majority of owners of the common property have a right to say who can use their common property and how it can be used? Or are “rights” just a one way street?