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[Cosmo]

Thanks to Kangaroo’s reply and bit of investigation, the issue we are now trying to resolve is: Is there any difference or should there be any difference between “lot property” of an owner and “exclusive use” common property for that owner.

I am afraid that I may have asked the wrong question at least for the issue we discuss at our Strata.  Our Strata is around 30 years old, the area according to the plan is ‘exclusive use common property’. We have no bylaws covering the use of any ‘exclusive use’ common property. 

 

To my knowledge, in the 30 years we have never had a practical issue re the exclusive use property.  No parking issues, no others trying to use the property, nor any issues on the sale or purchase of a lot.  As there have been no practical issues, my view is we shouldn’t waste strata funds or time on it. Nevertheless the following theoretical questions appear to regularly arise:

 

Should we have a set of bylaws for each ‘exclusive use common property’? 

For the peace of mind of owner’s selling or buying should we convert the ‘exclusive use property’ to ‘lot property’? What issues could arise if we do or don’t?

 

 

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