resident of a villa in my dads complex parks on common property in front of their garage – this is something that was verbally agreed to many years ago by all the original owner occupiers to allow these owners to do so as they had 2 cars and only 1 garage space. One of the couple is now deceased but the remaining owner is still using this space for their exclusive use for their visitors / family who sometimes stay for multiple days. this was not the intended meaning of the  approval . All the original owners who agreed to this have now moved on and my dad is the only one left who was part of the verbal agreement . I do not think that this agreement was ever documented nor noted as an amendment to any of the strata by laws. Am i within my rights ( proxy for my dad) to request to the strata managers  that this practice now cease as no other owner has the same right. This assumed right to park on the common property could/would become a financial windfall should the owner sell and falsely claim a right to park there for any prospective buyer. any help appreciated